Human Resources Management

MGT 132 Exam 2 Q1. The Department of Labor Procedure identifies performance standards and training requirements for a job. a. true b. false Q2. Job analysis experts are concerned that in high performance work environments in which employers need workers to seamlessly move from job to job and exercise self-control, job descriptions based on lists of job-specific duties may actually inhibit the flexible behavior companies need. a. true b. false Q3. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that organizations have job descriptions that list the essential functions of the jobs. a. true b. false Q4. Verifying the job analysis information with the worker performing the job and with his or her immediate supervisor is the ________ step in the job analysis process. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth e. fifth Q5. Information regarding matters such as physical working conditions and work schedule is included in the information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis. a. work activities b. human behaviors c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids d. performance standards e. job context Q6. Job enlargement refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases responsibility and achievement. a. true b. false Q7. Information regarding job demands such as lifting weights or walking long distances is included in the information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis. a. work activities b. human behaviors c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids d. performance standards e. job context Q8. Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis. a. true b. false Q9. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis is ________. a. deciding how to use the information b. reviewing relevant background information c. selecting representative positions d. collecting data on job activities e. developing a job description and job specification Q10. Jane records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data collection for job analysis is based on ________. a. diaries b. interviews c. direct observation d. questionnaires e. supervisor verification Q11. Competency analysis focuses on how the worker meets the job's objectives or actually accomplishes the work. a. true b. false Q12. Information regarding how, why, and when a worker performs each activity is included in the information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis. a. work activities b. human behaviors c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids d. performance standards e. job context Q13. A(n) ________ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job being analyzed. a. organization chart b. process chart c. value chain d. job preview e. job description Q14. Once a firm has a pool of applicants, the first step in pre-screening is the ________. a. in-person interview b. on-site visit c. application form d. telephone interview e. recommendation from recruiters Q15. The lower the rate of unemployment, the easier it is to recruit personnel. a. true b. false Q16. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions? a. knowledge of candidates' strengths and weaknesses b. potential to upset or lose employees who aren't promoted c. accurate view of skill sets d. high commitment to the company e. reduced training and orientation required Q17. Rehiring former employees could signal current employees that the best way to get ahead is to leave the company. a. true b. false Q18. The third step in succession planning is to ________. a. create an applicant pool b. assess candidates c. identify and analyze key jobs d. select who will fill key positions e. analyze the strengths of current employees Q19. A ________ can be used to calculate the number of applicants necessary to result in hiring the required number of new employees. a. trend analysis b. ratio analysis c. recruiting yield pyramid d. computer information system e. log function Q20. Trend analysis assumes the productivity increases over time. a. true b. false Q21. Some firms use contingent workers as short-term chief financial officers. a. true b. false Q22. For a mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreement to be binding, it simply needs to be a clause in the employment application. a. true b. false Q23. The first step in succession planning is to ________. a. create an applicant pool b. assess candidates c. identify and analyze key jobs d. select who will fill key positions e. analyze the strengths of current employees Q24. ________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. a. State-run employment agencies b. Private employment agencies c. Temporary agencies d. Executive recruiters e. Job banks Q25. Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which method listed below is likely to be the least successful for Smith Industries? a. employee referral campaigns b. specialized job search Web sites c. specialized recruiters d. executive recruiters e. all are likely to be successful Q26. The second step in succession planning is to ________. a. create an applicant pool b. assess candidates c. identify and analyze key jobs d. select who will fill key positions e. analyze the strengths of current employees Q27. If an employer is shown to use selection procedures resulting in adverse impact, the employer could then use all of the alternatives listed below except ________. a. institute another valid selection procedure that does not have an adverse impact b. show that the test is valid by conducting a validation study c. monitor the selection test to see if it has disparate impact d. revise the selection test to eliminate the problem e. all are possible alternatives Q28. Cognitive tests are the most difficult tests to evaluate and use. a. true b. false Q29. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test? a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion c. one that yields the same score from two different people taking the test on the same occasion d. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions e. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way Q30. Developing, validating, and using selection standards including selection tests generally require a qualified psychologist. a. true b. false Q31. If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. a. valid b. invalid c. reliable d. unreliable e. inconsistent Q32. Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except ________. a. polygraph tests b. credit checks c. background checks d. paper-and-pencil honesty tests e. drug tests Q33. What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft? a. personality tests b. interest inventories c. paper-and-pencil honesty tests d. graphology e. handwriting analysis Q34. Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure. a. true b. false Q35. Test validity answers the question, "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?" a. true b. false Q36. Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence. a. true b. false Q37. Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations. a. true b. false Q38. A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors. a. true b. false Q39. First impressions created from candidate application forms and personal appearance can affect interviewer ratings of candidates. a. true b. false Q40. A structured behavioral interview contains a series of hypothetical job-oriented questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job. a. true b. false Q41. Recruiters for technical and finance positions like to use job knowledge questions to assess how candidates perform under pressure. a. true b. false Q42. The final step a manager should consider when conducting interviews without a thoroughly-developed structured situational guide is to ________. a. prepare for the interview b. devise a plan for the interview c. probe specific factors during the interview d. ask questions about significant areas in a candidate's life e. match the candidate to the job Q43. Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this? a. background question b. past behavior question c. situational question d. job knowledge question e. structured question Q44. What type of interview might include the statement, "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment"? a. situational b. behavioral c. stress d. puzzle e. directive Q45. Which question below is an example of a job knowledge question? a. "Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that you could not answer. What would you do?" b. "Based on your past work experience, what is the most significant action you have ever taken to help out a co-worker?" c. "What work experiences, training, or other qualifications do you have for working in a teamwork environment?" d. "What factors should one consider when developing a television advertising campaign?" e. "What experience have you had with direct point-of-purchase sales?" Q46. Jill is interviewing six candidates for a position as an entry-level management trainee. The first two candidates were judged unfavorable. The third candidate was just average, but Jill was so pleased to find an acceptable candidate after the first two interviews that she assigned a better rating to candidate 3. This is an example of a ________. a. context error b. contrast error c. order effect d. recency error e. primacy effect Q47. Behavioral interviews yield a higher mean validity than do situational interviews. a. true b. false Q48. In a board interview, a team of interviewers interviews the candidate in a ________ fashion. a. serial b. sequential c. simultaneous d. systematic e. symmetrical Q49. Behavioral interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react to a hypothetical situation at some point in the future. a. true b. false Q50. Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? a. "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation." b. "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?" c. "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" d. "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of stress. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?" e. "In this position, you would have the responsibility of hiring and firing subordinates. Imagine that you have to fire an employee who is consistently absent because he cares for an elderly parent. Tell me how you would handle this situation."