Human Resources Management

MGT 132 Exam3 Q1. United Airlines utilizes a checklist of things that pilots should do prior to take-off and landing. This checklist is an example of a(n) ________. a. job aid b. instruction sheet c. task analysis form d. work function analysis e. skill sheet Q2. The first step in a training program is to ________. a. assess the program's successes or failures b. present the program to a small test audience c. design the program content d. conduct a needs analysis e. train the targeted group of employees Q3. Employers must always pay employees for attending training programs. a. true b. false Q4. The transparent, but often impermeable barrier that women face when trying to move to top management is called the ________. a. glass ceiling b. glass wall c. invisible corner office d. iron wall e. Mount Everest Q5. A disadvantage of lecturing as a method of training is that it is ________. a. fast b. appropriate for large groups c. allow questions from the audience d. boring e. less expensive than written materials Q6. Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson? a. job instruction training b. understudy training c. programmed learning d. apprenticeship training e. coaching Q7. The ________ process consists of 1) assessing the company's strategic needs, 2) appraising the current performance of managers, and 3) developing the managers. a. management development b. management skills inventory c. succession planning d. action planning e. performance support Q8. Organizational development usually involves action research. a. true b. false Q9. Performance analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine what specific skills the job requires. a. true b. false Q10. What is the second step in the training process? a. assess the program's successes or failures b. present the program to a small test audience c. design the program content d. conduct a needs analysis e. train the targeted group of employees Q11. ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. a. Needs analysis b. Task analysis c. Performance analysis d. Training strategy e. Development planning Q12. Integrated strategic management is an OD method of developing and implementing a strategic change plan. a. true b. false Q13. When designing a training evaluation study, one can use a time series design or a controlled experiment. a. true b. false Q14. The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________. a. needs analysis b. task analysis c. performance analysis d. training strategy e. development planning Q15. Some estimate that 50% of the U.S. population reads below the eighth-grade level with about 90 million adults considered functionally illiterate. a. true b. false Q16. ________ provides new employees with the basic background information required to perform their jobs satisfactorily. a. Employee recruitment b. Employee selection c. Employee orientation d. Employee development e. Training Q17. A disadvantage of on-the-job training is its expense. a. true b. false Q18. The component of an effective performance management process that explains each employee's role in terms of his or her day-to-day work is called ________. a. role clarification b. goal alignment c. developmental goal setting d. direction sharing e. coaching and support Q19. Which big five personality trait is associated with performance appraisal ratings that are too strict? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. conscientiousness d. openness e. neuroticism Q20. Performance appraisals are a link between corporate strategy, departmental goals, employee goals and employee performance in the overall performance management process. a. true b. false Q21. John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department, is in the process of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. John is using a ________ method. a. graphic rating scale b. constant sum ranking scale c. forced distribution d. alternation ranking e. paired comparison Q22. Which of the following measurement methods rates employee performance relative to other employees? a. graphic rating scale b. forced distribution c. likert scale d. constant sums rating e. critical incident method Q23. The M in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________. a. moderate b. measurable c. meaningful d. mid-range e. merit Q24. What usually occurs when employees rate themselves in a performance appraisal? a. interrater reliability is higher b. appraisals are subject to halo effects c. logrolling could occur d. ratings are higher than when rated by supervisors or peers e. ratings are about the same as when determined by peers Q25. A properly designed performance management system utilizes yearly meetings to ensure continuous improvement in the employee's capacity and performance. a. true b. false Q26. Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a(n) ________. a. reduction of social loafing in the team b. reduction of group cohesion c. decrease in satisfaction with the group d. lower task motivation e. tendency to inaccurately predict who would be promoted Q27. Performance appraisals assume that the employee understood what his or her performance standards were. a. true b. false Q28. With the ________ method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior. a. alternation ranking b. constant sums rating c. forced distribution d. narrative forms e. critical incident Q29. What process allows top management to diagnose the management styles of supervisors, identify potential "people" problems, and take corrective action with individual supervisors as necessary? a. strategic performance appraisal b. organizational development c. upward feedback d. MBO e. critical incidents Q30. Some supervisors, when filling in rating scales, tend to avoid the highs and lows on the scale and rate most people in the middle. This ________ means that all employees may be rated average. a. halo effect b. stereotyping c. central tendency d. strictness e. leniency Q31. The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high. a. central tendency b. leniency c. strictness d. bias e. halo effect Q32. Firms that use ________ let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance. a. downward feedback b. upward feedback c. MBO d. narratives e. critical incidents Q33. Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) allows supervisors to electronically monitor the amount of computerized data an employee is process each day. a. true b. false Q34. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the organization's higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into departmental goals is called ________. a. role clarification b. goal alignment c. developmental goal setting d. direction sharing e. coaching and support Q35. Small groups of employees from the same or different departments who meet periodically to network and support one another in achieving career goals are called ________. a. corporate fraternities b. career success teams c. career coaches d. therapists e. networking clubs Q36. If an employer offers to add individually-geared development plans and individual goal setting, it is encouraging a career development focus to the human resource activity focused on ________. a. human resource planning b. training and development c. performance appraisal d. recruiting and placement e. compensation and benefits Q37. Assessing interests, seeking out career information, and utilizing development opportunities are all part of the ________'s role in career development. a. individual b. manager c. supervisor d. company e. human resource specialist Q38. Which of the following is part of a manager's role in an employee's career development? a. communicating the mission, policies, and procedures b. utilizing career development opportunities c. participating in career development discussions d. establishing goals and career plans e. seeking out career information Q39. When Amanda interviewed for a job with the employment commission, the interviewer warned her that the job could be very stressful with long hours and a lot of bureaucracy. The interviewer was trying to provide ________. a. reality shock b. a realistic job preview c. a disincentive d. a challenge e. culture shock Q40. Career coaches help employees to create plans showing where their careers should lead. The planning time period is usually ________. a. less than one year b. 1-5 years c. 5-10 years d. 10-15 years e. equivalent to the number of years the person plans to work Q41. How can companies provide career counseling, development advice, and therapy for employees seeking to grow in their careers? a. encourage role reversal b. organize career success teams c. establish a corporate campus d. provide career coaches e. offer online career centers Q42. ________ is aimed at helping employees ease the transition from working to retirement. a. Preretirement counseling b. Performance management c. Retirement planning d. Flextime e. Downtime Q43. A career workshop uses vocational guidance tools to help employees identify career-related skills and the development needs they possess. a. true b. false Q44. Employees will trade job security for training and development opportunities provided at work. a. true b. false Q45. Which of the following is part of an employee's role in his or her own career development? a. communicating the mission, policies, and procedures b. providing timely performance feedback c. participating in career development discussions d. establishing goals and career plans e. offering a variety of career options Q46. What type of preretirement education program is offered most often? a. explanation of social security benefits b. leisure time counseling c. health counseling d. counseling for second careers outside the company e. psychological counseling Q47. Job shock occurs when a new employee's high expectations confront the reality of a boring job. a. true b. false Q48. Miranda wants to make partner at her law firm. She is worried, though, because everyone understands that 70-hour work weeks are the norm for someone striving to make partner. Miranda wants to be fair to her family as well as excel at work. To address this problem, the law firm could help by ________. a. providing Miranda with a career coach b. encouraging Miranda to join a career success team c. eliminating institutional barriers that disproportionately affect women d. encouraging Miranda to temporarily work in a different job e. providing a career planning workshop to help Miranda determine a better occupation Q49. A career is the occupational positions one holds at a single organization. a. true b. false Q50. Alternative work arrangements include all of the following except ________. a. part-time work b. flexible hours c. on-site child care d. telecommuting e. job sharing